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Best take: since the definition leads into the realm of strongly unintended consequences.

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Personally, that sounds quite wrong to me--unless you insert a schwa (that is a very neutral vowel sound) between the the "I" and the "s."

Check it out for yourself and do a test: Even in the elided form, we really have two syllables, albeit faint, rather than the one syllable of "I's" pronounced as "-ize."

However, I have no argument with the "'s" in "so's not to be late." That indeed looks like a thing.

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Once I read your comment: "and attempt to put out another set of 1008 questions before the meteor arrives", I was sold.

I hadn't realized you make them by hand, a big plus in my book.

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It seems to me that the question is straighforward: Does this adjective (retro) apply to all instances of this noun (anachronism)?

This implies a singular word 'kudo', not to be found in any standard dictionary, which would nornally have a plural 'kudoes', as in 'echoes', 'haloes', 'heroes'...There are not many four-lettered English words ending in 'o', other than those borrowed directly from Spanish in recent time, which usually do form their plurals by just by adding an 's', pronounced as a 'z'.

Ian Gill wrote a brilliant evisceration of the [an non-alternative Vancouver newspaper that gets almost all of its advertising revenue from Real Estate developpers] journalistic (ahem) standards, and called it "that rebarbative idiot-child" that British Columbians are supposed to accept as their newspaper of record.

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It includes people who work in construction, owners of bars & restaurants, a bookkeeper, a real estate agent...

I would assume that this type of shoe was commonly seen on "docks" and came to be known as "dockers," except that for here in America, I am unfamiliar with any specific shoe style being called "dockers."

When I googled the word dockers I receive no references to shoes of any kind.

When it entered English, it became a plural meaning "isolated, rough terrain." This led to the word , "shoes suitable for rough outdoor use", hence (probably via ) .

But does this mean that I must always be hyper-careful to make sure that there's absolutely no chance of offending anybody at all?
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I actually like this type of question — even though it might seem too lawyerly — because it does make a distinction between words that otherwise would seem to be exact synonyms.


However, I don't think it's the only answer, since the word "nominal" is also an adjectival form (semantically, and to a great degree, etymologically) of "noun"--and of course, the adverbial form would be "nominally." I guess you'd argue that the of "nominal" isn't "noun"--and you'd be right.

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The etymology of the word seems to refer more to the fact that the people speaking a creole are youth born in the new land where both languages are spoken and who have an opportunity therefore to create a living language (since adults can't do this), than any reference to slaves.

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(And I believe thou hast been sufficiently excoriated for thine error.)

There's a great discussion of the historical development of the second person pronouns and the dropping of everything but "you" here:

Ironically, it seems that the French influence was responsible for the ultimate dominance of "you." "In the Middle English and Early Modern periods, members of the expanding middle class sought to imitate polite forms of speech and to avoid those usages that would associate them with the lower classes." This meant adopting the formal "you," whose use had become prevalent among the nobility -- in imitation of the French nobility's use of "vous."

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